Posting on behalf of my husband. Had a pretty useless eye appointment today. He has suffered with proliferative diabetic retinopathy for several years, vitrectomy in both eyes and has had his fill of laser (they won't do anymore!). One eye is pretty dire, loss of central vision, unable to see the top letter on chart today. The other eye is slightly better but still with a loss of peripheral vision. I asked the doctor today where on the grand scale of things is his vision i.e. partially sighted etc, and she said he wouldn't necessarily meet the criteria for registering as partially sighted as his vision wasn't near the level for partially sighted, but based on the amount of laser and loss of peripheral vision he probably would meet the criteria. He doesn't really want to register (I think its a matter of pride) but was just curious.
My question being - the doctor mentioned today that 'there isn't much of the retina left to really say that he's got retinopathy'........I don't really understand this. I understand that the retina could be/probably is damaged due to the amount of laser/surgery etc. but to say that there isn't much retina left.....how does that work?
Sorry if my question is a bit vague. I'm really not very happy with the appointment today - the doctor didn't really seemed that bothered,- didn't know that he was T1, didn't know he had 2 vitrectomies. She said he had some fluid in his eye, but then didn't dwell any more on this. He has had cataracts forming for a while now, but they are stalling doing anything with them as they don't want to risk the vision in his 'good' eye. He was told that if both eyes were better they would do it, but because one is pretty useless they have to try and preserve the sight in the other one.
Thanks
My question being - the doctor mentioned today that 'there isn't much of the retina left to really say that he's got retinopathy'........I don't really understand this. I understand that the retina could be/probably is damaged due to the amount of laser/surgery etc. but to say that there isn't much retina left.....how does that work?
Sorry if my question is a bit vague. I'm really not very happy with the appointment today - the doctor didn't really seemed that bothered,- didn't know that he was T1, didn't know he had 2 vitrectomies. She said he had some fluid in his eye, but then didn't dwell any more on this. He has had cataracts forming for a while now, but they are stalling doing anything with them as they don't want to risk the vision in his 'good' eye. He was told that if both eyes were better they would do it, but because one is pretty useless they have to try and preserve the sight in the other one.
Thanks