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- Type of diabetes
- Type 1
- Treatment type
- Pump
Some (slightly tongue in cheek) lunchtime wonderings.
At work today I came across some official guidance for employment issues regarding disability discrimination. Interestingly, it stated that if a medical condition is managed with medication, the person's need for work adaptation should be based on their fitness/capacity for work without treatment. Behaviour modification on medical advice counts as treatment.
"Diabetes" (no mention of type) was specifically mentioned as an example, i.e. a diabetic's work setup should be provided based on how they'd be without treatment.
Seeing as without treatment a T1 would quickly be in DKA, definitely unfit for work, and without medical intervention their life would be in danger, that kinda begs the question why doesn't diagnosis of T1 automatically trigger incapacity benefit? Is it just that if you were dead you wouldn't have a job?
At work today I came across some official guidance for employment issues regarding disability discrimination. Interestingly, it stated that if a medical condition is managed with medication, the person's need for work adaptation should be based on their fitness/capacity for work without treatment. Behaviour modification on medical advice counts as treatment.
"Diabetes" (no mention of type) was specifically mentioned as an example, i.e. a diabetic's work setup should be provided based on how they'd be without treatment.
Seeing as without treatment a T1 would quickly be in DKA, definitely unfit for work, and without medical intervention their life would be in danger, that kinda begs the question why doesn't diagnosis of T1 automatically trigger incapacity benefit? Is it just that if you were dead you wouldn't have a job?