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Here's a line from the official, supposedly informative thread from the beginning of the 'Type 1 Diabetes' section of this forum:
"Hypoglycemia is the term for when we have low levels of glucose in our blood. A blood glucose level of under 4 mmol/l is considered to be hypoglycaemia (a hypo)."
Each and every day, I quite commonly have blood-glucose readings below 4mmol/l. Not at all uncommonly, I get readings around 2mmol/l.
By and large, however (touch wood), I do not have hypos at all.
It's on account of what I eat, and the way that I eat, that I'm able to tolerate blood-glucose readings that in the past would have brought me to the floor before I might take appropriate action. (I've read that others manage to achieve the same result by a dietary means different to my own: @diamondnostril is one that I know of.)
But how could my control of my condition possibly appear reasonable when, according to the definition of 'hypoglycaemia' endorsed by this Forum, I am in a semi-constant state of hypoglycaemia?
Hypoglycaemia necessarily involves behaviour: my inability to respond appropriately to a hypo do to a lack of insight - which response, or lack of response, would be something behavioural - is itself a highly characteristic symptom of severe hypoglycaemia.
So, here's what looks like a veridical definition of 'hypoglycaemia': "(Symptoms resulting from) low blood glucose."
I found the above definition somewhere on the internet. Here's something else I found, after a brief search:
According to Medilexicon's medical dictionary, hypoglycemia is "Symptoms resulting from low blood glucose (normal glucose range 60-100 mg/dL [3.3-5.6 mmol/L]), which are either autonomic or neuroglycopenic."
The present Forum's official definition of 'hypoglycaemia' is at best an unhelpful convention. (It's a very widespread quasi-convention, I know.) But it's also just plain wrong.
Once more, here's my question:
How could my control of my condition appear reasonable when, according to the definition of 'hypoglycaemia' endorsed by this Forum, I am semi-constantly going hypo?
"Hypoglycemia is the term for when we have low levels of glucose in our blood. A blood glucose level of under 4 mmol/l is considered to be hypoglycaemia (a hypo)."
Each and every day, I quite commonly have blood-glucose readings below 4mmol/l. Not at all uncommonly, I get readings around 2mmol/l.
By and large, however (touch wood), I do not have hypos at all.
It's on account of what I eat, and the way that I eat, that I'm able to tolerate blood-glucose readings that in the past would have brought me to the floor before I might take appropriate action. (I've read that others manage to achieve the same result by a dietary means different to my own: @diamondnostril is one that I know of.)
But how could my control of my condition possibly appear reasonable when, according to the definition of 'hypoglycaemia' endorsed by this Forum, I am in a semi-constant state of hypoglycaemia?
Hypoglycaemia necessarily involves behaviour: my inability to respond appropriately to a hypo do to a lack of insight - which response, or lack of response, would be something behavioural - is itself a highly characteristic symptom of severe hypoglycaemia.
So, here's what looks like a veridical definition of 'hypoglycaemia': "(Symptoms resulting from) low blood glucose."
I found the above definition somewhere on the internet. Here's something else I found, after a brief search:
According to Medilexicon's medical dictionary, hypoglycemia is "Symptoms resulting from low blood glucose (normal glucose range 60-100 mg/dL [3.3-5.6 mmol/L]), which are either autonomic or neuroglycopenic."
The present Forum's official definition of 'hypoglycaemia' is at best an unhelpful convention. (It's a very widespread quasi-convention, I know.) But it's also just plain wrong.
Once more, here's my question:
How could my control of my condition appear reasonable when, according to the definition of 'hypoglycaemia' endorsed by this Forum, I am semi-constantly going hypo?
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