Hi
If only 60% of type 1's test positive for autoantibodies does anyone know what is proposed to cause Type 1 in the other 40%?
Is all Type 1 autoimmune in nature and is it just that they haven't discovered the other (non AntiGAD) antibodies that affect the remaining 40%? Or do they think something else causes Type 1 as well?
According to the World Health Organisation official criteria, there are 2 forms of type 1. 1 a autoimmune and 1b idiopathic or unknown cause (those types caused by drugs trauma etc are neither type 1 or 2). Type 1b may be caused by an as yet undiscovered antibody, it might be that the marker of the antibody is not present when tested or it might be a completely different cause. On another form, a person who claims to be an endocrinologist posted that she is seeing a large rise in the numbers of type 1b diagnosed.
Also if your diabetes is autoimmune, would you keep producing antibodies or are they only present at certain points during the course of the disease? Could you (10 years after diagnosis) have a test for Anti-GAD and C-peptide and expect to find anything?
For antibodies: perhaps, some people seem to have them, others not. It might alter from time to time so would not be definitive.
A recent study of Joslin 50 year medalists, showed that many still had some beta cell function, 30% of them also had no complications. It might be that these people(the survivors) did well because they still had some slight insulin production or it maybe that there is a continual cycle of regeneration and destruction.
I have LADA, and have read one model suggsting that it might be the final result of many autoimmune 'attacks' (of a less aggressive nature than in 'classic' type 1. At first these attacks are followed by sufficient regeneration to avoid diabetes but eventually, perhaps because of age or perhaps because of the frequence or severity of attacks, too few cells are regenerated and diabetes results.
Any info much appreciated.
Goji