Quick urination question

If you drank 500ml of say water (small bottle) would you void exactly 500ml within say an hour of drinking it, assuming you had nothing else and everything was functioning normally (physically)?

LittleGreyCat said:

At a guess perhaps slightly less, the same, or slightly more.

You lose water vapour as you breathe, and urination only excretes extra water your body doesn't need, so you might lose a bit to the atmosphere and end up weeing less.

As your body breaks down food, and especially fat, water is produced as a byproduct. You (or at least I) tend to go for a wee first thing in the morning even though it is many hours since the last drink. Some of this is a byproduct of metabolism.

If your body excretes some water via breath and sweat, but releases some water from metabolic functions, and you are fully hydrated then you may wee out the same as you drank.

One final factor - how fast are your kidneys? Mine are very slow so it would take more than an hour to shift the 500 ml of water. Others I know are much faster.

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Thanks. The question about the kidneys is very interesting. Is there a normal time lapse for the kidney process? I think mine are very slow too.

Ok so it depends on circumstances and the individual then? That's why they say to drink more during the summer or if you leave in hotter climates.

I seem to be able to hold in fluid and go without voiding for quite a while. Like for example last night, I'm pretty sure I drank more than 500 ml and still haven't felt the need to go yet.
Previous day though I drank the same quantity and felt the need to go about an hour later. I was quite anxious at the time.

Today I woke up and had a small void (yellowish) after having drunk at least a litre in total I reckon over night which I thought was unusual. I had a tea and coffee for breakfast and then pasta for lunch with bread followed by natural ice cream. Voided a good hour after all this and it was a good amount.

However about an hour later I went for a long walk and felt that slight sensation of wanting to pee again. Had a coffee before going home and voided. Then I masturbated and voided after and a small amount came out (yellowish). About half an hour later though I felt the urge to go again and voided a decent (clear and odourless) amount.

My concern is where and how did this last void of urine come from? AND why was it a different colour to the urine I produced just half an hour before? I realise it could be the caffeine intake but I've not had an issue with this before. With high blood sugar I realise you would also be very thirsty (which I'm not) and the urine would smell sweet (which it does not).
But also I'm confused because I thought I of have had a large void in the morning after drinking a large amount the night before. So this inconsistency is confusing. Also worrying about this I know is probably making things worse

So I did go to the doctor the other day and had another urinalysis done, which again was negative.

Doctor suggested possible anxiety is the cause of the slight sensation to pee that I occasionally get at night and infact upped my remeron dosage now to 30mg. I've taken this the last few days. Over the last week I've felt fine and actually have slept better until tonight. I woke up needing to pee and voided a good amount whereas the previous night I slept through the night.

I don't know the occasional nocturia is normal I suppose especially if it's only once a night as I'm older in my mid 30s now but it still scares me in a way because I've never had to wake up in the night to pee before my whole life. So this is why I'm worried. Maybe it's just a sign of getting older or something else. I did have a small cup of tea right before bed but did empty my bladder right before sleep.

I'm going to go back to the doctor and request to stop medication.