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Type 2 <2mmol rise 2hrs postprandial. Origins of advice?

HSSS

Expert
Messages
7,675
Location
South of England
Type of diabetes
Type 2
Treatment type
Diet only
This is an oft repeated goal on this and other sites. Where did that number come from?

Is it what a metabolically health person achieves?

Or did some study develop the recommendations some other way?

or are we propagating an urban myth ? (Albeit one that has a large amount of common sense attached to it)
 
It's not something I've ever paid much attention to, but it seems like a sensible guide to assist the majority in gauging the impact of different meals.
 
It's not something I've ever paid much attention to, but it seems like a sensible guide to assist the majority in gauging the impact of different meals.
Not criticising the sense it makes, because it does. How high and prolonged can a spike be if it’s back close to previous reading within 2hrs? Not that bad one would assume.

Just curious why 2mmol and if there is a source rather than make assumptions is all.
 
Not criticising the sense it makes, because it does. How high and prolonged can a spike be if it’s back close to previous reading within 2hrs? Not that bad one would assume.

Just curious why 2mmol and if there is a source rather than make assumptions is all.

Yeah I understand, and knew you weren't criticising anything. Just adding my own thoughts to the mix. Pen to paper, as it were.
 
@HSSS - If I were looking for that sort of thing, I'd start with Jenny Rhul and/or Richard Bernstein.

I think Jenny has some fairly tight guidelines, from memory.
 
@HSSS - If I were looking for that sort of thing, I'd start with Jenny Rhul and/or Richard Bernstein.

I think Jenny has some fairly tight guidelines, from memory.

@DCUKMod,

Exactly, this was might first thought too, so I looked it up. Jenny Ruhl's advice is to test at 1 hour (recommended levels below 140mg/dl or 7.8 mmol/l) and at 2 hours (recommended levels below 120 mg/dl or 6.7 mmol/l). Here's the link: https://www.bloodsugar101.com/how-to-lower-your-blood-sugar

Btw, she attributes her advice to a person who's named Jennifer and was a member of on the alt.support.diabetes news group.

Just a thought: Is it possible that the 2 mmol/l target has originated somewhere where blood sugars are measured in mmol rather than mg/dl? Two mmol/l translates into 36 mg/dl -- which is quite an odd number imo.

Edited to adjust units of measurement from mmol to mmol/l.
 
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I did find this PDF of the 2011
IDF Guideline
for Management
of PostMeal Glucose
in Diabetes
Sorry to get to it you will have copy and paste the link url
file:///H:/Downloads/postmeal%20glucose%20guidelines.pdf

It does have lot of studies referenced inludung the following:

Polonsky KS, Given BD, Van CE. Twenty-four hour
profiles and pulsatile patterns of insulin secretion in normal and obese subjects. J Clin Invest 1988; 81:442-448.

Mazze RS, Strock E, Wesley D, Borgman S, Morgan
B, Bergenstal R, Cuddihy R.Characterizing glucose exposure for individuals with normal glucose tolerance
using continuous glucose monitoring and ambulatory
glucose profile analysis. Diabetes Technol Ther 2008;
10:149-59.

Tsujino D, Nishimura R, Taki K, Miyashita Y, Morimoto A, Tajima N. Daily glucose profiles in Japanese
people with normal glucose tolerance as assessed by
continuous glucose monitoring. Diabetes Technol Ther
2009; 11:457-60.
 
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This is an oft repeated goal on this and other sites. Where did that number come from?

Is it what a metabolically health person achieves?

Or did some study develop the recommendations some other way?

or are we propagating an urban myth ? (Albeit one that has a large amount of common sense attached to it)
I don't know the answer but it is a very interesting question, I am always suspicious of rules without any justification. However, there seem to be a lot of people on here who have used a rise less than 2 mm/L after 2 hrs to tailor their eating with good effect regarding HbA1c, so whatever the origin it has no doubt been perpetuated as it seems to work.
 
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