the consultant was quite shocked at the peptide results, showing near normal range, but he can't explain the fact that I still need a lot of insulin to keep my BS in check. if I don't Bolus after a meal I pretty much go off the scale with high sugars, same goes for infections, colds and the like, I have been known to go as high as 38-40mmol on three machines and had it before register as just HI on the machine!! Ketones have been produced when I have these episodes of uncontrollable BS's (2) on my machine, so I'm just as confused as I have always been I guess. Thought I knew what diabetes was and did to you but this has knocked my confidence in controlling what is happening with itFrom what you say, you were a genuine T1 (=T1.5) when you had the infection and fortunately your pancreas has recovered it's insulin production so no longer T1 but if you have remaining BS level problems then you are essentially T2 if at all.
From what you say, you were a genuine T1 (=T1.5) when you had the infection and fortunately your pancreas has recovered it's insulin production so no longer T1 but if you have remaining BS level problems then you are essentially T2 if at all.
Hi Catapillar. We will continue to take different positions on this. Yes, by strict definition T1 is caused by an auto-immune reaction (same for LADA which is T1 that occurs later in life), but the destruction of islet cells, thru whatever cause, produces the same symptoms and needs the same treatment. There is no clinical definition of diabetic islet cell death for non-immune causes which is pretty silly. As the end result and treatment are the same I suggest the T1 definition needs to cover any diabetic condition where there is very low insulin output thru inactive islet cells. BTW I understand but have no evidence that many T1s do have some remaining insulin output so as usual in medicine there is a complete spectrum of any condition. For interest how would you define a diabetic who has very low insulin output thru viral attack on the pancreas? It can't be T2 so what would it be?A pancreas infection doesn't cause type 1. Type 1 diabetes is caused by an autoimmune attack. Nor is type 1 temporary, like it appears OPs pancreas infection was.
@johnpol if you are over 20 years post diagnosis with diabetes and your c-peptide results are normal, you are not, and you never were type 1. Cpeptide is a protein waste product produced when the pancreas makes insulin. A long diagnosed type 1 doesn't make insulin, so their cpeptide results will be nil, honeymooning type 1s may be producing a little insulin, but their cpeptide results will still be far below normal. A honeymoon period does not last 20 years.
So you were misdiagnosed as type 1. Your diagnosis has now been corrected to type 2.
You can't have a hba1c of over 100%. Hba1c is measured in two different ways, a DCCT measure, which is given in percentages, and IFCC measure which is given in mmol/mol. A hba1c of 50mmol/mol is equivalent to 6.7%.
For interest how would you define a diabetic who has very low insulin output thru viral attack on the pancreas? It can't be T2 so what would it be?
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