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Message: <blockquote data-quote="Daibell" data-source="post: 107663" data-attributes="member: 21149"><p>I'd been suffering thirst, had to pee several times a night and had lost 1/2 stone in weight from 10 stone quite suddenly. I knew this as I have attended a gym several times a week for many years and usually measure my weight. I've never been overweight, had a sensible diet and there is no diabetes in the family. My wife decided to try to feed me more to put the weight back on which, although well intended, caused me to have blurred vision and finally to become very irritable. So, I had all the signs which my GP 'confirmed' with a urine stick and declared me Type 2. He waited 3 months whilst I tried a 'better diet' despite me having constant sugar in my urine using my own urine sticks. My HBA1c after 3 months confirmed the need for tablets so I started Metformin SR. Gliclazide was then added and recently increased. It's probably also worth saying that shortly before the main symptoms I had male candida which another GP treated with cream and missed the fact that it is one of the most common symptoms of diabetes. So, am I Type 2? No, I don't think so. I'm nearer to Type 1.5 which is why the Gliclazide helped more than the Metformin. I feel I must comment on Cugila's posting which quotes 'once a Type 2 always a Type 2'. I know this is DUK's mantra but it all depends on how you define Type 1 & Type 2 and whether the GP got it right without using any real tests as in my case. I've yet to find a consistent definition of the two types that stands up to examination. There are several postings in this thread from people who have had their diagnosis changed from one type to another proving the point that using the two rigid classifications is not helpful. So, despite my NHS booklet recommending carbs with every meal I'm failing to achieve good HBA1c levels so I'm low carbing which makes scientific sense and helps delay the inevitable move to insulin.</p></blockquote><p></p>

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