Reply to Thread

Guest, we'd love to know what you think about the forum! Take the Diabetes Forum Survey 2025 »

Message: <blockquote data-quote="DonutEnter" data-source="post: 2226688" data-attributes="member: 520218">Hia bit of background, I’m 39 weeks pregnant and passed 2 OGTTs at 30 and 35 weeks pregnant but I continue to get glucose in my urine, ranging from + to +4 depending on what I’ve eaten. My healthcare professionals have now just wiped it off as “one of those things”. But it concerned me, so I bought my own glucose monitor. My readings haven’t been too bad, but I’m trying to follow a low GI diet. If I eat meals from my “normal” diet , 1 hour post eating readings are in the high 7s - would that happen to a non diabetic?But my main question - I had a bowl of porridge for breakfast today with semi skimmed milk. I tested my BG 1 hour after finishing it (1 hour 12 mins after starting it) my BG was 7 mmol.  Ok... but on a urine dipstick 30 mins later, I had ++ glucose. my understanding is that glucose spills into the urine at around 8.9-10 mmol - so does that mean that my BG reached that level at some point after starting my porridge? And I am missing the spike? As a test I did my BG 30 mins after starting my porridge yesterday and it was 8.2 mmol - if it continues to rise until the one hour mark , does that mean it could have gone over 9/10 mmol and therefore into my urine? Please can someone explain if I have totally misunderstood. I know with women who have gestational diabetes they usually say test an hour after your first bite. But if BG peaks before then, then is it really accurate to do it this way?</blockquote>

Verification

Top Bottom

Search

Search

Reply to Thread