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1-hour reading high

lucylocket61

lucylocket61

Expert
Messages
6,394
Location
Wrexham
Type of diabetes
Type 2
Treatment type
Diet only
As an experiment, I took my bs 1 hour after eating my breakfast, which was eggs, tinned tomatoes, and 1/2 slice bread.

My reading is 9.5 :shock:

It is usually 6.8-ish after 2 hours. Should I be worried that it goes up to 9.5 after 1 hour? I tested cos I went all hot. (could be my age)
 
I don't think this is too much of an issue the 2 hour reading is more important as your body is then producing some insulin to bring the sugars down. Even non diabetics readings go up after food.
 
Mine is always higher after one hour, but is well within normal range after two. I think it is normal. I must experiment on my kids :lol:
 
Panic Over:

2 hour reading is 6.4, which is lower than my pre-meal reading.

Phew!!!

Thanks guys. Off for a cuppa tea and a calm down. :crazy:
 
As I have said in other posts it continues to bug me that we are expected to test at 2 hours and ignore what happens up to that point. Yes, OK the insulin gets to work... but at a lower pace than in a non-DM person.
IMHO we should avoid these "hidden" spikes.
Surely this is harming us?

Maybe someone can show what the time graph of continuously monitored non-DM would be? I bet their more responsive, lower resistance insulin, "dampens" or suppresses these spikes. They get no spikes so their eyes and kidneys etc are unharmed whereas we... :(

I suspect it is a simple chemical reaction whereby the concentration of "effective" insulin in proportionately lower in a DM person so it takes longer to mop up the glucose or is this overly simplistic? 8)
 
In a non-diabetic, as soon as food touches the lips virtually, there is a phase one insulin response. This is a surge of insulin, thought to be stored insulin from the previous production cycle. This stops the peak going very high at all. The phase 2 response, which is insulin manufactured on the hoof, brings it down to normal.
With a T2, the first response to go is thought to be the phase one response. We thus get a high peak, and our manufactured insulin thus has more work to do to bring it down so it takes longer. Also, there is therefore no insulin left over to be stored for the next phase one response - vicious cycle!
I've tested, and my one hour reading (my peak with most meals) is up to 40% higher than my two hour reading. We test at two hours though as it gives us a standard for comparison, and we never quite catch peaks anyway, (bit like the stock market!), so instead we check to see if we're back to acceptable levels at two hours.
 
So glad this being queried as I can suffer symptoms immensly from a 1 hour high which can be 9, 10, 11...however at the 2.5 hours mark it then be 6, 7, 8.

Just because of feeling awful at 1 hour, I've corrected when I'm desperate and if I can't the luxury of allow time to pass (at work and it's busy and I need a functioning brain) but hate doing that as the drop is quicker and I feel ill then too!

My basal's fine, I take it in the morning and my morning reads are now around 5 -7 even if I got to bed in the 10/11 mark on occasion.

Any ideas? I don't think there is an element of insulin resistance for me which I know some LADA types can have (my c-pep a year ago was on the lower end of the range)

Or something else going on? I'm thinking loss of the other hormone Amilyn which I've read T1s typically don't have this response and it's released with insulin in non-Diabetisc to slow down gastric emptying and minimise the post pranadial spikes.
 
Sanober,
You may be right. I think the only thing to do about it is to try to keep the GI low. Unfortunately though you can then have the opposite effect and end up with a hypo followed by higher levels later.

There is a drug which is an analogue of amylin: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pramlintide
I don't think I've heard of anyone outside the US using it soI think it probably isn't available.
Victoza has also been shown to reduce peaks in T1 in trials . I don't know if it's ever being prescribed off licence in the UK for this (according to people on another forum Dr Bernstein prescribes it to T1s)
http://diabetes.webmd.com/news/20110607 ... lps-type-1
Personally, I wouldn't consider the latter unless I had really bad problems.
 
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