in ketosis with high blood sugar?

Background to my question: I have prediabetes with normal post-prandials as long as I eat well. My fasting blood sugar is stubbornly prediabetic unless I have wine in the evening (my non-prescription metformin, I call it).

I had a piece of cake (shouldn't have, obviously) and blood sugar up to 185mg/dL. My ketones (ketomojo) were at .5 , so I was technically in mild ketosis. Can I hear some smart people here give me their thoughts on what's going on?

And I frequently get fasting blood glucose of 105 and ketones .9. I really assumed that the very first thing even the tiniest amount of insulin could do is shut off ketogenesis. Either I'm not using my ketones normally (can you be ketone resistant, lol?) or could I have some mix of type 1 and type 2?

I'd love your thoughts!

bulkbiker said:

How long after eating the cake (naughty naughty) did you measure?

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Only 1 hour. I guess it's possible my poor ketones didn't even have time to get soaked up by any cells before my poor bloodstream was slammed with all that **** sugar.

ert said:

Nutritional ketosis occurs as the end product of your body burning fat is optionally at ketones from 1.5 to 3 mmol/l. I intermittent fast and try to end up in this range, to lose body fat.

PS. That's not to be confused with DKA is where the pH of your blood changes when your body doesn't have insulin and your blood sugars are above 13 mmol/l for an extended period of time, and your ketones aren't cleared without insulin and spiral quickly above 5 up to 25 mmol/l, which happens in type 1's. DKA does happen in type 2's but it's extremely rare.

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Thank you. So in your opinion anything under 1.5mmol doesn't really "count" as ketosis? I guess that would certainly put my question to rest. I was kind of wondering about that. Most articles say .5 and above is considered ketosis, but then there's "nutritional" ketosis and then there's "therapeutic" levels that start at 3, I think.