I do hope that, as this information sounds important, someone will translate it into easier language.
I will have a go at describing it, but as you point out it is written in a style that gives the impression of describing everything in detail, but obfuscates it so as as to confuse the novitiate such as me.
I will be referring to the figures in the following page of the report
https://link.springer.com/article/10.1007/s00125-011-2204-7
Looking at Fig 2a, this shows the glucose levels that were measured in the blood as the test progressed.
There are two sets of results being displayed. The lower graph shows the non diabetic controls starting at the baseline 4.6 mmol/l at time (0) and the diabetic subjects starting at 7 mmol/l at time(0). at Time(0) both levels of glucose were raised by 2.8 mmol/l above their level at tim(0)., and the graph shows the average that each group reached according to the readings of blood plasma taken at the times stated in the text. The bars above and below the markers show the variation in the readings from the average value.
Looking at figure 2b this shows the insulin responses to the changes in glucose described in fig 2a above.
Fig 2b is showing the response from the non diabetics taken at baseline. This was the only time this group was tested.
The period from t(0) to t(10) show the fast sampling period to catch the first insulin phase response which normally only lasts 10 minutes. The time t(10) to t(20) is showing a slower sample rate. IMO if they had continued fast sampling here, then the fall off from the peak would have been sharper, but the 20 min delaty gives a slower decline that I believe is misleading. At t(30) the second step in glucose occurs and this second section also has the arginine added. The period from t(30) to t(40) should normally show another first phase response which these normal non diabetics should be showing, but for some reason it is missing.
The purpose of arginine is normally to suppress the second phase but allow the first phase through as normal. But it is missing even in the non diabetic group. The other thing to note is that the second stage response in the first step is also missing. I presume that because the second step is occurring too soon after the first part of the test, then it superimposes on top of the first part. So at time t(30) the beta cells are trying to give both the second stage from part 1 and also the first response to part 2. But we see neither occurring. What we see is that at t(60) the arginine gets stopped, and suddenly the beta cells are free to output whatever they have being held back, and it all comes out in a rush. So the peak of the second part is greater than the first part, and is artificially high (IMO). The peak at t(60) is short lived and seems to be a phase 1 response, and we do not see the phase 2 response to the second step because the measuring stops. We also do not see any phase 2 response from the first step. Note that a phase 2 response normally lasts 2 to 3 hours after a step change so this whole test has ignored or squeezed the second phase response into a super phase 1 response at t(60). I am not happy that this is a valid test. But it may just be showing that when the output gate opens at t(60) then it shows the dam burst and hence maximum possible output flooding out. Not convinced tht this is representing what happens under normal circumstances.
What figures 2c to 2f show is the same as fig 2b but for the diabetic subset averaged . but at different intervals of the trial. It does indeed show that the first response in insulin does improve for this group. What I take from this set is that since fig 2b has no first reponse either, then this set of graphs actually shows is NOT that beta cell production improves as claimed, but thaqt whatever stops the phase 1 response from happening has improved.
My reseach into the beta cell kinase continues, but from that I have learnt so far, the controlling enzymes for the phase 1 and phase 2 responses are different, and have different triggers. Phase 1 is controlled by potassium, and phase 2 is controlled by calcium. Different mechanisms. Arginine interferes with the calcium transfers, but not the potassium, so what happened to the normal people? Looking at a similar experiment by another team than ND show different results but they did not superimpose their tests like the ND did. Their results curves are very different.
I am beginning to think that the test method used in ND is suspect, and is producing artifacts that are being interpreted wrongly.