LonelyFatGuy
Well-Known Member
- Messages
- 65
And remember you’re NOT supposed to have a spike 2 hours after eating, you’re supposed to be back to normal by then or close to it.
You probably ended up a bit lower than you started because that high carb meal provoked a significant insulin response. I often end up lower than I started if I have a lot of carbs.
It doesn't work what way..? Really short term, as in, having a direct affect on the meal just eaten..? Based on what I've seen over the last week, I think it might.It wouldn’t be the metformin- metformin doesn’t work that way.
Unless I've misunderstood the half-life of drugs,
There are always exceptions of course and a lot depends on the fat content of the meal because fat slows the digestion and can cause the carbs to hit the blood later. But generally speaking someone with a fully working pancreas and no insulin resistance will see their blood sugar return to pre meal levels within 2 hours. That's why we use the 2hr test as a benchmark.spike 2 hours 'post prandial', even for non-diabetics, is the norm.
Sorry, what..?
Everything I've read (including from the guide on this website) seems to suggest a spike 2 hours 'post prandial', even for non-diabetics, is the norm.
It says on this site that 4 to 5.9 mmol pre prandial is normal for non-diabetics, and it should be under 7.8 at least 90 minutes after a meal. How can anyone interpret this in any other way than that a spike is completely normal..? Where have you got this idea that it should be back to normal by then..?
My reply: normal *or close to it*. Yes, a good benchmark is for it to be under 7.8mmol 2 hours after a meal. Personally, because my Diabetes is pretty well controlled, I wouldn’t be especially happy with that figure these days, it would indicate I’d had a high carb meal. (Incidentally you mention 90 minutes- I haven’t gone to check but generally 2 hours is specified not 90 mins, and certainly in my case that’s quite significant because 90 mins tends to be when I’m at my highest, for an average meal. Lots of fats would make the spike later; fast acting carbs like white bread or cereal would make it earlier, but usually for me, it’s 90 mins. Back to baseline by 120 mins).
I have worn a Libre 100% of the time since October, so I can be fairly specific about times and trends, more so than someone relying solely on finger tests.
Why do you have diabetes then..?
If the cure for type 2 diabetes was just to eat a bunch of carbs, get an insulin spike, and end up lower than baseline, then wouldn't we all be cured?
My reply: haha that’s the $10 million question, isn’t it?
Type 2 diabetes is thought to be the result of metabolic disturbance bought about by many years of intolerance to carbs causing a cycle of insulin overproduction, weight gain, and insulin resistance. Type 2’s don’t have too little insulin (at least not initially- at some point the pancreas can give up and stop producing, it can also be clogged with visceral fat and not produce efficiently). We have too much, but it doesn’t work properly. Weight loss, a low carb diet, and drugs (I’m on Ozempic, which stimulates the pancreas to produce an appropriate amount of insulin at an appropriate time, as well as metformin, which helps reduce insulin resistance and decrease exogenous production of glucose by the liver) has reduced my insulin resistance significantly.
A couple of real-life examples for you - in October, I had a scoop of ice cream. It raised my blood sugar to 13mmol and stayed there for a couple of hours at least. Last week I had another scoop of ice cream. I started at 6mmol and stayed at 6mmol - didn’t move at all. A couple of days ago, I had a piece of my husbands birthday cake. I did get a rise (I think it was to 8.1mmol) but then it dropped very quickly to quite low - not a hypo as such, but a fast drop, to lower than baseline (this is the graph I attach), the cake was at lunchtime.
It doesn't work what way..? Really short term, as in, having a direct affect on the meal just eaten..? Based on what I've seen over the last week, I think it might.
I'm only generally eating 2 meals a day. Usually the exact same meal twice. The first meal seemed to cause a normal spike 2 hours later, I'm assuming with the help of the Metformin. But the second meal that was exactly the same was causing me a larger spike at night.
So I reintroduced the second gram of Metformin with meal 2 (having previously ditched it because of the "brown rain"), and now I'm also getting a more normal spike with that second meal.
The half-life of Metformin is supposedly 6.5 hours, so wouldn't that make sense..? Unless I've misunderstood the half-life of drugs, a short half-life means it gets in and works fast and then it gets out. Seems logical that a pill taken with each meal is only really helping with that meal. The level of the drug will have diminished by half by the time of your next meal (if there is roughly 6.5 hours between your meals...) and thus wouldn't be as effective.
Been stated by 3 people at this point I think, but as yet no source provided to back the claim up...We should actually be aiming to be back (or as close as possible) to normal at 2 hours post meal as already stated
My own results show that will depend on what I eat. For example, I started at 6 mmol on Tuesday, and I had 150g of 'no added sugar' Alpen. Tested an hour later, was sitting at 13. Tested again at the two hour mark, was down to 8.4.any spikes or bumps will (usually) be earlier and have at least started to come down at the 2 hour mark.
Yes, but they say it decreases the amount of sugar absorbed by the intestines in the first place, so clearly it works on sugar from the meal before it ever gets to the blood. So as soon as you put the food in your body, Metformin is apparently working to ensure that you absorb less sugar.Metformin works by reducing the amount of glucose your liver releases it does not reduce the amount of glucose in your blood from your meal.
Again, people keep repeating that, but no one is posting a source to back it up..?But generally speaking someone with a fully working pancreas and no insulin resistance will see their blood sugar return to pre meal levels within 2 hours. That's why we use the 2hr test as a benchmark.
How much weight did you lose..?Your user name suggests you may be carrying some excess weight? Have you lost some weight already maybe? That could explain improving figures. For me I am pretty sure it was the weight loss that made a big difference
Been stated by 3 people at this point I think, but as yet no source provided to back the claim up...
My own results show that will depend on what I eat. For example, I started at 6 mmol on Tuesday, and I had 150g of 'no added sugar' Alpen. Tested an hour later, was sitting at 13. Tested again at the two hour mark, was down to 8.4.
Had potato waffles for dinner on Thursday, tested an hour later and got 6.4, but went up to 8.2 at the two hour mark. So, clearly rising more slowly from the potato product.
So I'd have to call into question your use of the word "usually", since it seems to be diet dependent. Clearly the lower GI foods that we're supposed to be eating are going to cause a slower increase as is their nature.
Thanks for posting your own personal experience, but I want to see a link to any respected source that says we should, that it's normal, to be back to baseline 2 hours after a meal.OK so let me show the results from my OGTT just after I got into remission.
As you can see started at 5.2 and after 120 minutes was back at 5.7 (still slightly higher than start but nowhere near where I'd been). That's the kind of thing that many "normals" would see too.
Your 8.4 after 2 hours post Alpen shows that you are still a way of "normalising" your reaction and that Alpen is pretty bad for you with about 90g of carbs... plus whatever you had on it.
View attachment 54381
I want to see a link to any respected source that says we should, that it's normal, to be back to baseline 2 hours after a meal.
no one is posting a source
Who are "they" and can you show us a respected source ?they say it decreases the amount of sugar absorbed by the intestines
Everything I've read (including from the guide on this website) seems to suggest a spike 2 hours 'post prandial', even for non-diabetics, is the norm.
It says on this site that 4 to 5.9 mmol pre prandial is normal for non-diabetics, and it should be under 7.8 at least 90 minutes after a meal. How can anyone interpret this in any other way than that a spike is completely normal..? Where have you got this idea that it should be back to normal by then..?
…..
Why do you have diabetes then..?
If the cure for type 2 diabetes was just to eat a bunch of carbs, get an insulin spike, and end up lower than baseline, then wouldn't we all be cured?
Define "respected source"
Personally I prefer people who have been there and done it.
How much weight did you lose..?
I'm not really that fat... I lost 7lbs recently to take me down to just over 12 stone. I really can't say if that was enough to make any kind of difference to how my body is currently working. All I know is that.
I think you'll find that "respected sources" rarely use words like "should" and "normal". If you're looking to read more on what the medics think is going on then I'd recommend Bilous and Donnelly's "Handbook of Diabetes". It is written for the practitioner and is the current handbook for the NHS. You do have to struggle to see what you, as the subject, is supposed to be doing.Thanks for posting your own personal experience, but I want to see a link to any respected source that says we should, that it's normal, to be back to baseline 2 hours after a meal.
If no one can substantiate it, it seems like just their opinion.
We use cookies and similar technologies for the following purposes:
Do you accept cookies and these technologies?
We use cookies and similar technologies for the following purposes:
Do you accept cookies and these technologies?