My googling suggests that it works by making your body produce more insulin. Why on earth would that be suitable for a T1 who presumably produces no insulin? Or are you still in honeymoon phase?
In your position, I would want an explanation from my endocrinologist as to why a T2 drug is suitable for a T1 diabetic. (It may well be, I'm sure your specialist knows more about diabetes than I do.)
Good luck.