- Messages
- 7,476
- Type of diabetes
- Type 2
- Treatment type
- Diet only
A comment was made on another thread that many type 2 progress to insulin within 10 years due to beta cell damage. (In order not to derail that conversation I though it would be interesting to continue this here.)
Is that an assumption based on continued consumption of high carb levels and a medication only approach, and is it often more than 10 yrs?
To my view it is an “assumption” is that beta cells have worn out due to type 2. It’s likely many of these are caused by the wringing out every possible drop of insulin of the already massively overproducing pancreas by medications such gliclazide. It’s also highly likely that many still overproduce, not under, but have become hugely insulin resistant which mimics underproduction.
Few type 2 are actually tested for insulin or c peptide production at diagnosis nor before being moved onto insulin. Even fewer have beta cell checks made (can that even be done?).
So how do we know why so many progress to insulin - if in fact they even do so - and at what point in time after disease onset/diagnosis.
Is that an assumption based on continued consumption of high carb levels and a medication only approach, and is it often more than 10 yrs?
To my view it is an “assumption” is that beta cells have worn out due to type 2. It’s likely many of these are caused by the wringing out every possible drop of insulin of the already massively overproducing pancreas by medications such gliclazide. It’s also highly likely that many still overproduce, not under, but have become hugely insulin resistant which mimics underproduction.
Few type 2 are actually tested for insulin or c peptide production at diagnosis nor before being moved onto insulin. Even fewer have beta cell checks made (can that even be done?).
So how do we know why so many progress to insulin - if in fact they even do so - and at what point in time after disease onset/diagnosis.