Something’s bugged me for awhile and I was wondering if any of you could help. The basal test guidelines seem to preclude the possibility of your Basal being too high. Why’s that?
You must have ate no less than six hours ago. You must have also had zero readings below 4.0 in that time.
However if you took the optimal amount of Bolus for the last meal and your Basal were too high it is highly likely that you would see your Blood Sugar going low before the end of that six hour window. As after your Bolus controlled the carb spike, your Blood Sugar would keep dropping regardless. As such, to meet the preconditions of starting the test it is demanding your Basal must not be too high to start with, because if it were too high you would not have met the conditions for starting the test.
Am I missing something or misunderstanding something?
You must have ate no less than six hours ago. You must have also had zero readings below 4.0 in that time.
However if you took the optimal amount of Bolus for the last meal and your Basal were too high it is highly likely that you would see your Blood Sugar going low before the end of that six hour window. As after your Bolus controlled the carb spike, your Blood Sugar would keep dropping regardless. As such, to meet the preconditions of starting the test it is demanding your Basal must not be too high to start with, because if it were too high you would not have met the conditions for starting the test.
Am I missing something or misunderstanding something?